Soccer Referee Resources
Home
Ask a Question
Articles
Recent Questions
Search

RSS FEED Subscribe Now!

Q&A Quick Search
The Field of Play
The Ball
The Players
The Players Equipment
The Referee
The Other Match Officials
The Duration of the Match
The Start and Restart of Play
The Ball In and Out of Play
Offside
Fouls and Misconduct
Free Kicks
Penalty kick
Throw In
Goal Kick
Corner Kick


Common Sense
Kicks - Penalty Mark
The Technical Area
The Fourth Official
Pre-Game
Fitness
Mechanics
Attitude and Control
League Specific
High School
Other


Common Acronyms
Meet The Ref
Advertise
Contact AskTheRef
Help Wanted
About AskTheRef
Panel Login

Question Number: 27998

Other 11/13/2013

RE: Adult

Warren of Sydney, Australia asks...

This question is a follow up to question 25886

Hi Panel,

As you know, I really appreciate the great educational resource that your website is and all your efforts on the site.

I did however want to seek clarification for an answer to an old question (yep been reading through them oldies recently ! :-)

In Qtn 25886 Joe says 'When the ball is touched by a 2nd player at an IDFK the ball is then deemed to be in play. Even if that touch is illegal such as deliberate handling the ball is still in play.'

Can I suggest that you clarify the wording of this answer slightly so as to remove the ambiguity that seems to imply that the ball is only considered in play once another player touches it ? (the use of the word 'then').

Of course the ball is in play from an IFK 'when it is kicked and moves'. So perhaps it might be helpful to emphasise that while we keep our arm signal in the air until another player has touched the ball, or it has gone out of play, to indicate effectively that a goal cannot yet be scored, the ball is definitely in play whether or not that 2nd-player touch occurs or not.

It just seemed to me that an inexperienced ref might read the current answer and think that the ball was only in play *after* the 2nd touch.

Thanks again for all your efforts !
Warren.

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi Warren
Anytime that there is possible ambiguity on an answer that is not helpful.
You are totally correct that the ball is in play when the ball is kicked and moved on any free kick.
As suggested by you I have clarified the wording in the answer.
A further thought about this is that had the player been successful in denying the goal with his deliberate handling he could not be sent off for denying an obvious goal as a goal could not be scored directly from the IDFK. Same would apply to a throw in. That though was not asked in the question.
Thank you for bringing this up which is appreciated.



Read other questions answered by Referee Joe McHugh

View Referee Joe McHugh profile

Answer provided by Referee Keith Contarino

Hello Warren. Thank you for the kind words. We all are appreciative when any of our answers are pointed out as being ambiguous which gives us a chance to clarify. Thanks again!



Read other questions answered by Referee Keith Contarino

View Referee Keith Contarino profile

Ask a Follow Up Question to Q# 27998
Read other Q & A regarding Other

Google
Web AskTheRef.com
Soccer Referee Extras


Did you Ask the Ref? Find your answer here.


Enter Question Number

If you received a response regarding a submitted question enter your question number above to find the answer


Offside Question?

Offside Explained by Chuck Fleischer & Richard Dawson, Former & Current Editor of AskTheRef





This web site and the answers to these questions are not sanctioned by or affiliated with any governing body of soccer. The opinions expressed on this site should not be considered official interpretations of the Laws of the Game and are merely opinions of AskTheRef and our panel members. If you need an official ruling you should contact your state or local representative through your club or league. On AskTheRef your questions are answered by a panel of licensed referees. See Meet The Ref for details about our panel members.