I throw the ball down the line towards my goal. My team mates draws the defense up. Then pass a high ball down my line within a few seconds. At that moment I step back into play and (usually) pass back to a team mate outside the box to shoot. I tell the linesman what I'm going to do. But, usually, they and the ref seem very unsure if 2 seconds off the filed after I throw in the ball is permitted. Or if its relevant to an offside call.

Was reffing a middle school game and attacking team had two players in offside position. Another attacking player shoots on goal and keeper jumps and it hits him in chest and bounces off his chest to one of the attacking offside players who shoots on goal. The keeper never had control and didn’t touch it with his hands. Does this goal count or is it an offside offense and IFK to the defending team? Thanks, always appreciate the help.

It probably doesn't happen that often, but are there instances where two cautions on one player can take place in the context of field play resulting in ejection? I'm thinking it could happen in the context of advantage play. The official could go back to the first cautionable foul rather than call advantage.

Law 13 - Free Kicks Situation: Direct free kick within shooting range of the goal. As the free kick taker attempts a shot, a defender who was outside 10 yrds, runs from behind the free kick taker and intercepts the shot within 10 yrds of the spot. The free kick taker put the ball on the spot took few steps back and then shot the ball. The free kick was taken without asking the ref for 10 yrds. The defense did not present a wall. The defender who intercepted the free kick ran from the blind side of the kicker. Ref allow play to continue.

I have a question about the wording, meaning, and application of some wording in Law 14. In the section about PKs taken during regulation time, it states that: "The penalty kick is completed when the ball stops moving, goes out of play, or the referee stops play for any offense." There is similar wording for PKs taken in "additional time" (IFAB wording), along with a few other provisions. The descriptions for the termination of PKs taken in additional time make perfect sense. The purpose of the description for PKs in regulation (non-additional time, during the normal course of the match) seems vague. Why is it necessary to define when the PK is complete? Moreover, other circumstances could ensue that we could reasonably presume to mean the PK is complete. For example, the kick is blocked by the keeper, and the defending team gains possession of the ball and advances toward the opponent's goal. There is no definition in the Laws that says the PK is over in that case, but we have no doubt that it is. I searched around, and the only, somewhat vague, explanation I could find is that the definition is provided so that the referee can make the proper decision about offenses, sanctions, and restarts (parts 2 and 3 of Law 14). But any actions by the teams that would trigger such decisions occur in the moment immediately around when the kick is taken, not after, for example, the ball rebounds and goes out of play. Even if the ball is kicked over the goal and encroachment by either team had no impact, why does the referee need to know by definition that the PK is complete at that point? So that description in the Law seems entirely superfluous. Again, the similar wording for PKs in additional times is recognizably useful. Not so for the wording in the description for PKs in regulation time. Your experience and insight here would be most welcome. And if you could provide an example or two of how the wording is applied to a real situation, that would be most helpful.

Concerning the disallowance of Egypt's goal in the game against Argentina, could the referee have decided that the "foul" was not a foul by World Cup standards, or if it was, that the foul should not be called, even though it was part of the progression to the goal, in light of the circumstances? Or, once VAR intervened, did the referee have no discretion but to disallow the goal?

In the semi-automatic offside rule, a player's hair is considered part of their body only if it affects the trajectory of the ball. So, in the match between Croatia and Portugal, Matanovic only touched the ball with his hair, but the trajectory of the ball did not change. Why was Pasalic's goal still considered offside

I watched the Croatia-Portugal game last night. I know very little about soccer, and I have a very stupid question about the Offside rule: Imagine a game where Team A is winning 1-0 with a few minutes left to play. They decide to move all their players into Team B's side of the field except for their goalie and one guy who hovers at midfield just inside Team A's side of the field. If one of Team B's players dribbles the ball just past that player, is he offsides?

When is a second whistle required to restart play according to NFHS soccer rules?

Germany v Paraguay on TV now ,German player from his own half kicks ball forward into other half towards a player who is stood offside, Paraguay player then heads it over touch line and the referee gives a corner,why not an indirect free kick for offside seeing fifa said no delays of flag for offside?