Question Number: 15903

Law 11 - Offside 6/27/2007

RE: Other

F. Rottles of Ottawa, ON Canada asks...

This question is a follow up to question 15793

What is the criteria for control of the ball?

When a defender intercepts a pass, to deliberately dispossess the attacking side, and he moves the ball out of one dangerous area but, unfortunately, into another dangerous area, has he not controlled the ball with that deliberate movement of the ball?

Answer provided by Referee Gary Voshol

This is probably a disappointing answer, but control is what the referee decides is control. It's kinda like what the judge said when he was trying to define pornography - I know it when I see it.

Things to look for are whether the player had a choice in how he played the ball, or if he was making a desperation move. Was he trying to put the ball somewhere specific, or just anywhere but where it was? That might suggest less control, despite the deliberateness of the play. Another consideration is whether the player made a mistake - did he play it poorly or make a poor choice of how/where he played it? As one of our senior officials here in the US likes to say, "The Laws of the Game were not written to compensate for the mistakes of players." If he simply made a mistake, that's just too bad - he had the opportunity to control it but muffed it.

All of this is very subjective, and borders on that elusive concept of intent. We can't see into the player's mind to know what he intended to do, we can only judge based on what we saw him do.

Answer provided by Referee Chuck Fleischer

Another way to think of this is put yourself there as the player. Ask yourself if you would be happy with where the ball went, or would you have been better of if you took more time and put it somewhere else.

Somewhere else is offside because you didn't control it. If you're happy with what you did then you controlled it enough to satisfy yourself and the referee should agree. That upsets the offside equation.

Regards,

Answer provided by Referee Richard Dawson

You got to think of a control more as, I get the ball and then I will do something with it. Not I got to the ball and look where it went.

Think on a ball rolling gently towards an opponent he puts out his foot, stops the ball and then sends a long ball across middle which is cut out by a returning attacker who was offside positioned at the time just prior to the defender stopping the ball.
Is he gaining an advantage? No it was a mistake the defender controlled the ball then played it poorly.

Now have a ball moving quickly last kicked by an attacker being pursued by an attacker and an offside attacker just in behind the defender, the defender under pressure gets to the ball first sending it across the middle which is cut out by a returning attacker who was offside positioned at the time just prior to the defender kicking the ball. Is he gaining an advantage? Was there interfering with an opponent?
I say yes that kick was a desperation clearance, what controlled possession other than to stop the opponent from getting to it first? How different from a keeper leaping to knock a ball down or sticking a foot out to deflect a ball away from trouble. A keeper by definition must possess the ball within his hands to have control. Yet by what definition is control and possession achieved with the other body parts?
In particular the head and feet?
The fact there is contact is not enough we need to see it as a choice of options where control of the ball is exhibited without undue pressure! So if it is a mistake it is his by his own choice not one forced upon him!

Try this thought a defender has an easy rolling ball, close to the touchline (last touched by an opponent) heading towards him and sees an onside attacker coming in to close him down. The defender places his body in front of the ball and slides a perfect side foot pass back towards his keeper unknowingly there was an offside attacker off the field through momentum by the far post who ran in and thanked him for the easy goal?

Now Try this a defender has an easy rolling ball close to the touchline (last touched by an opponent) heading towards him and sees an offside attacker coming in quickly to close him down. The defender places his body in front of the ball and slides a perfect side foot pass back towards his keeper unknowingly there was an offside attacker off the field through momentum by the far post who ran in and thanked him for the easy goal?

One is a thank you gift the other must have interfering with an opponent or gaining an advantage as a distinct possibility
Cheers

Answer provided by Referee Steve Montanino

Everything said in the answers to this thread are very good at discussing the dilemma associated with possession of the ball.

Let's look at it this way, in Gridiron (AKA US football) a player in possession of the ball can do something with it legally, of course there this also requires that the person hold onto the ball. In football (AKA US Soccer) I look at this the same way. Can the player legally manipulate the ball more than any other player. If so, then he is the one in possession. If there is a challenge to that possession, I ususally consider the original possesser to be in possession until either the ball becomes equally controllable (which means no one has the ball) or a defender has sucessfully wrested control of the sphere in such a way that he now has a better ability to manipulate what the ball does than the first guy.

I look at a pass much like Gridiron too. I say a team is in possession of the ball while passing it in a controlled manner until it is aparent that the ball has been misplayed to the opponent or into empty space(a fumble). The ball also changes hands on a good legal interception once the opponent is clearly going to be able to manipulate the ball where the other team is not (an interception).

Ultimately this is subject to the referee's judgement where fouls are concerned or the statistician where time of possession is concerned.