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Question Number: 16937

Law 12 - Fouls and Misconduct 9/27/2007

RE: competive Adult

Doug Woods of Oceanside, CA USA asks...

This question is a follow up to question 16891

I was told that a deliberate handling of the ball must be called, and the advantage rule did not apply. Was I misinformed?

Answer provided by Referee Richard Dawson

YES you were very badly misinformed! Pray tell which genuis offered you that tasty mythological tidbit? Not I hope anyone who actually instructs referees?
Cheers



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Answer provided by Referee Keith Contarino

Yes you were misinformed. Hopefully this was NOT by a referee. Deliberately handling the ball is a foul under Law 12 and ALL fouls under Law 12 are subject to advantage.



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Answer provided by Referee Michelle Maloney

A deliberate handling of the ball should be called - unless allowing advantage would benefit the team who did not do the handling. In that case, the referee can wait 2-3 seconds to see if the advantage is realized. If not, whistle and return to the spot where the ball was handled and give a direct free kick - possibly with a caution, depending on the referee's opinion of why it was handled and how blatantly.



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Answer provided by Referee Chuck Fleischer

You're getting some bum scoop there Doug. The referee should intervene on this direct free kick offence unless his doing so would do as the defence intended, break up the other side's play. That's called playing advantage and when utilized by the referee he has 2-3 seconds of limbo to see if what he thought would happen by his not stopping play does happen.

Regards,



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Offside Question?

Offside Explained by Chuck Fleischer & Richard Dawson, Former & Current Editor of AskTheRef


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