Question Number: 17777

Law 12 - Fouls and Misconduct 11/8/2007

RE: Under 16

James Bonney of Kent, Sittingbourne England asks...

In a game i was playing in a few days ago.....the keeper recieved the ball in his hands from open play. An outfield opposition player then kicked the keeper deliberatly bringing him down...the keeper then got up and retaliated by kicking the player back....both players were cautioned and a penalty was given. The ref appeared to play advantage from the first kick and, when the keeper retaliated, stopped playing advantage and gave a penalty. Is this the right decision? If not what should have been done?

Answer provided by Referee Gary Voshol

Did the ref signal advantage, or did you assume it?

What may have happened is that the ref missed seeing whatever the player did to the keeper - it happens, we're looking in another direction or there other are players screening our view. But he saw the retaliation. Somehow we almost always see the retaliation.

Answer provided by Referee Michelle Maloney

From the sequence of events you cite, it sounds like: 1) keeper has possession of the ball; 2) attacker kicks/trips/charges/tackles the keeper; 3) referee doesn't see this, clearly, since a keeper in possession of the ball cannot be dispossessed of it legally by the other team; 4) keeper gets up with ball still in his hands (?) and kicks the attacker; 5) referee sees this and blows whistle awarding PK against keeper's team and gives both attacker and keeper a caution. The part I don't get is the caution to the attacker. IF the referee didn't see him do anything worthy of stopping the game, why did he then give a caution? It would seem, from your description of the scenario, that a free kick should have been awarded to the keeper's team because the attacker's offense came first, with a card for misconduct against both players. Depending on the type, force and direction of the kick against the keeper the card could have been yellow or red, and the same for the keeper. I just don't see how you get a penalty kick out of this scenario without different facts.

Answer provided by Referee Ben Mueller

If the referee signaled for advantage, then he was playing advantage. If there was no signal given, then perhaps the referee missed the first foul. This is one of those that its hard to say without seeing what has happend.

The following questions were asked as a follow up to the above question...

See Question: 17912