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Soccer Rules Changes 1580-2000


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Question Number: 21554

Law 12 - Fouls and Misconduct 6/17/2009

Paul Hofmann of Smyrna, Ga USA asks...

This question is a follow up to question 21548

In my humble opinion...
There is nothing at all illegal about any defender playing the ball in any direction he wishes, he is permitted by the rules to play the ball to anyone he chooses. The defender is never the one at fault if this infraction is ever called.
Anytime this is called by the ref, the restart is a IDFK at the spot where the keeper handles the ball. (Unless of course the keeper handles it outside of the confines of the PA)
Therefore, in my humble opinion, the burden of playing the ball fairly and within the rules lies solely upon the keeper. I believe my opinion is supported by the wording of the rule:
'Pass-back to the Goalkeeper: A goalkeeper shall be penalized for handling the ball intentionally passed to him from the feet of a teammate.'
There is nothing wrong with passing the ball towards the keeper, the infraction occurs once the keeper intentionally plays the ball with his hands.
In this scenario, the ball was intentionally passed off the defenders feet, and that intentional pass went to the keeper, So far, no infraction....Then the keeper intentionally used his hands to play the ball.
I'm blowing my whistle.

Answer provided by Referee Gary Voshol

Paul, with all due respect, what rule system are you quoting from? The Laws of the Game say this:

An indirect free kick is awarded to the opposing team if a goalkeeper, inside his own penalty area, commits any of the following four offences:
? controls the ball with his hands for more than six seconds before releasing it from his possession
? touches the ball again with his hands after he has released it from his possession and before it has touched another player
?touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a team-mate
? touches the ball with his hands after he has received it directly from a throw-in taken by a team-mate

See that pesky word, 'deliberately', in the 3rd bullet point?

You are correct, the offense doesn't occur unless the keeper handles the ball after a kick. But the keeper isn't considered for the offense if there was no deliberate kick to initiate it.



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Answer provided by Referee Keith Contarino

If you are saying the defender may kick the ball directly at the keeper and there is no foul unless the keeper handles it, then,of course, you are correct.

If you are saying the defender may kick the ball anywhere he wishes and if the keeper happens to handle it it's an infraction, then you're wrong.

Advice to Referees points out that if the ball is misdirected or misplayed, we don't punish the keeper for handling it and that we should always consider if the players are playing within the Spirit of the Law



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Answer provided by Referee Richard Dawson

You are not wrong to think that it could only that it must. As the referee of the match your opinion will reign supreme but I ask you to consider the effect of awarding an uncontested ball possesion to a scoring opportunity. Work on understanding the spirit of the laws. The meaning of fair play and the concepts of trifling and doubtful as they apply to the overall match!
Cheers



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