Question Number: 23033

Law 11 - Offside 3/29/2010

RE: potential youth ref Adult

Steve of Chamblee, Ga usa asks...

This question is a follow up to question 22990

OK, I get 'interference', but in the original question, it seemed to me that the ball was passed to the offensive player, or at least this player ended up being somewhat close to the ball. This would make him 'involved' in the play regardless of the fact that he was not able to possess the ball. So, I'm wondering why offides was not immediately called. Based on what I'm hearing, it sounds like the ref on the original play ruled that this player was not involved in the play, and then subsequently interfered with the defender. Its hard for me to imagine an offensive player being in such a position as to immediately 'interfere' with the defensive player without having been offsides AND close enough to be 'involved' so that an initial offsides call should have applied before the interference.

Answer provided by Referee Dennis Wickham

What constitutes participation in play has evolved from simply being near the zone of active play. It is not an offense to be in an offside position. In the USSF, the interpretation is that the player must touch the ball or interfere with a defender's ability to see or play the ball.

Answer provided by Referee Keith Contarino

No, then you would be punishing him for being in offside position which is not allowed If the ball is played towards him, he has to touch the ball in order for interfering with play. If the OSP player is close enough to immediately take advantage of his position he may be gaining an advantage but what is described is almost classic interfering with an opponent