Question Number: 23146

Law 12 - Fouls and Misconduct 4/19/2010

RE: Competitive Under 18

Grant Davis of Las Vegas, Nevada U.S.A. asks...

A player on my girls team played a ball intentionally back to the keeper but hit a poor pass and the ball was bouncing. The keeper mishit the bouncing ball and her clearance went straight up in the air and she caught it on the way down as an attacker was coming in for the ball. The ref made no call and let play continue. I believe that this should have been a free kick for the opposing team for illegal handling by the keeper, otherwise keepers could always play back passes up with their feet to avoid this rule. It worked out for my team but I told my keeper afterward to head the ball out to avoid any penalty. Am I correct or was it legal for her to catch the ball?

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi Grant
Yes technically under the law this should have been called as an infraction as the ball was deliberately kicked back to the goalkeeper by a team mate and as the ball was not touched by any other player other than the GK she was was not entitled to touch it with her hands. On another day a referee may call this offence.
In the circumstances the referee may have seen the offence as trifling and simply allowed play to continue or he could also have interpreted that the kick by the GK put the ball back into play resulting in a challenge by an opponent for the ball.
To be absolutely certain the goalkeeper should not touch the ball with her hands when the ball has been deliberately kicked to her by an team mate until it has been played by an opponent or not deliberately kicked to her by a team mate.

Answer provided by Referee Dennis Wickham

The USSF answered a similar question in 2009, stating:

'There is no issue here at all if the scenario is to be given its face value meaning. A teammate kicks the ball back to his goalkeeper ? no violation. The goalkeeper kicks the ball (badly, but that doesn't matter) ? no violation. The goalkeeper subsequently handles the ball ? since this occurred directly (no intervening play of the ball by anyone ELSE) ? violation.

In short, there is no issue that a violation has occurred. The only question is whether it was trifling or should be whistled. This HAS to be decided by the referee based on the circumstances of play, taking risks, maintaining flow, etc. The only fact bearing on the matter is that the goalkeeper DID illegally take hand control of the ball under pressure from the opponents. In other words, he illegally withheld the ball from challenge, which is what this infringement is all about. Accordingly, although the decision must be up to the referee, the scenario tends to favor whistling this indirect free kick foul.'

The following questions were asked as a follow up to the above question...

See Question: 23160