Question Number: 24671

Other 3/9/2011

RE: Junior Under 13

David Cassells of Cowes, Victoria Australia asks...

This question is a follow up to question 24650

I was going on Joe's reply .......
'If the foul involved the use of excessive force, totally beyond the bounds of normal play, then the referee must send off the player for serious foul play or violent conduct, show the red card, and award the direct free kick to the opposing team.'

I guess he was thinking the foul occurred before the goal was scored.

I wasn't saying the goal should be disallowed.
Thanks very much for the replies. Not sure about the need for comments that 'As a ref you should know......'

I know I ****should **** know all the rules but I don't and other refs make mistakes with the rules so coming here to get advice from others when they aren't sure which is a great way to learn.

Thanks again.

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi David
Many times the written word is not a good method of communication. In the original question I simply took a full quote from the Advice to Referees which obviously did not refer directly to the original question. The question related not to whether the goal should be allowed but rather could disciplinary action be taken afterwards. The purpose behind the ATR quote was to support the two lines of my answer and to explain careless, reckless etc. If a referee is of the view that a challenge merits a caution then even if advantage is played and a goal is scored the player can still be sanctioned before the restart. Indeed if the challenge was so late that the ball was out of play the player can still be cautioned and the restart does not change.
It is now obvious that you were questioning the answer in the context of the ATR quote. Colleagues will respond to what they think the questioners mean, which may be an accurate or inaccurate interpretation of the intended meaning. In other words the meaning of the communication is the response that one gets and that works both ways.

Answer provided by Referee Keith Contarino

Hi David. Like my fellow panelists, I neglected to look at the question number you were referencing in your question and took your answer out of context. Yes all referees have to know there can be no 'foul' after the goal. But it's clear with this question you do know that and we did a poor job in our answers by not looking carefully at what you were referencing. My apologies.