Question Number: 30444

Law 13 - Free Kicks 5/22/2016

RE: Select Under 11

Trrnt of Covington, KY Kenton asks...

If the attacking team has an indirect kick from 8 yards from their scoring goal and a player runs over the stationary ball and uses the sole of their foot to roll it backwards a couple feet to a teammate and the 2nd teammate scores, should it be a goal. Our ref awarded the opposing team a goal kick and said a idfk must be a kicking motion and that is impossible with your sole even though it was a clear action. He said maybe you could use your heel but never your sole.

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi
very harsh denial and one that would rarely happen. As described the ball has been kicked with the sole of the foot in which case the ball was in play and the goal should have stood. The only way the goal would not count is if the ball did not move such as in the situation of a tap on top of the ball or the player stood on the ball. In those instances the ball does not move.
In your example though the ball clearly moved two feet which which is without doubt kicked and moved. The law makes no difference as to what part of the foot that kicks the ball or the type of kick.
In fact the laws allow for a free kick to be taken by lifting the ball with a foot or both feet simultaneously.