Question Number: 32549

Law 11 - Offside 6/27/2018

RE: Rec Adult

Peter Babbage of Hjorring , Denmark asks...

I didnt actually see the match today involving Germany but reading the report it said the first Korean goal was initially given as offside but after VAR it was seen that the ball had come off Krooss foot so he was onside. I stress I didnt see the game but if I take this as accurate, if the ball just hit Krooss foot, surely he didnt play the ball, the last person was a Korean. Of course if he swung his foot at it, then he has played it but surely if it just hit him, then the player would still be offside.

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi Peter
VAR showed that the ball was played by Kroos. I watched the game live and my first reaction was offside as was no doubt the ARs view when he raised the offside flag. Video review then showed that Kroos toe poked the ball to a team mate who missed the ball and it went to the Korean player who scored.
It was a correct use of VAR and no doubt showed the benefit of the technology. In real time it would have looked like offside as the Korean player beside Kroos tried to play the ball as well but did not manage to do so. Had he done so it might have been offside although even the position of the scorer was tight. That was not reviewed as the ball was last played by Kroos the German player so the scorers position was irrelevant.
And yes had the ball deflected or rebounded off Kroos it would not have reset the offside. VAR showed that did not happen and no complaints from the Germans

Answer provided by Referee Richard Dawson

HI Peter,
a misplayed ball is NOT the same as a deflected ball. The gaining an advantage clause was the initial thought of the AR because he could not see the chain of events unfolding in the barrage of players. If there is a useful purpose for the VAR these reviews of offside which are NOT opinion driven but hard line technology are the perfect use of them.
Cheers