Question Number: 33888

Other 2/18/2020

AEK Fan Club of NY of NY, NY USA asks...

This question is a follow up to question 33887

Hello, thank you for your replies!

So from the answers we have:
Mr. Wright saying there was no penalty
Mr. Grove saying there was no penalty

but mr. McHugh saying there was a penalty.

So questions for you, please respond again when possible.

1. The defender is holding the player from the beginning of the play pulling his right hand. When he catches up to the defender, he puts his left arm around him and holds him down. None of this was considered by mr Wright and mr. Grove, they just focused and commented on the last part of the play. Does this fact change their opinion? It is clear in the video that the defender was continuously holding the defender from the start of the play.

2. Shouldn't the referee be informed to at least review the play, through VAR? As I see even from your replies, there is no consensus

3. Let's assume there is an offence in the penalty box by a defender but the attacker exaggerates it. Does this negate the offence?

Thank you!

Answer provided by Referee Peter Grove

Hi,
I think you are slightly mischaracterizing ref McHugh's answer - he didn't say there *was* a penalty, he said, ''there was *the possibility* of a penalty.'' Anyway, on to your other questions.

1. As I said in my original response, I didn't see a penalty there but other referees might. I considered everything that I saw in the video.

2. Since I'm not sure about it being a penalty in the first place but I think others might think it was then logically, that means that for me, it wouldn't be a clear and obvious error that the VAR should call to the referee's attention, one way or the other.

3. No - my stance is that if there is an offence, there is an offence and what the opponent does after the offence happened, does not affect whether the offence occurred.

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi
Such decisions are all a matter of opinion.
I said that there was the possibility of a penalty due to the arm position yet the referee did not see enough for it to be called and that is all that matters.
I gave an opinion as to why it was not given and we must respect the game in the way it is officiated. It is not about refereeing the game from a chair from a VAR room yet only using that tool to assist the referee. The game would stop on every single corner or free kick which we do not want to happen. VAR is not about 100% accuracy for all decisions as there is no desire to destroy the essential flow and emotions of football which result from the games almost non-stop action and the general absence of lengthy stoppages. The VAR philosophy is:
*minimum interference – maximum benefit*
I watched Chelsea v Manchester United last night and the first Chelsea goal was ruled out for a push on a United player. In the lead up there was also a possible one arm *push* on the Chelsea player yet on review it was obviously considered that the first *push* did not merit a penalty kick yet the Chelsea push did merit a free kick and the goal disallowed
Looking at the AEK incident again it is clear that the contact had no impact on play as the ball was well over both players heads which may have been another factor in the no call. In the Chelsea game the *raised arm* on the Chelsea player did not have an impact on HIS play yet his two arm push certainly did on the United player who was pushed to the ground
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yM72wkQXLEM&t=1m7s
Chelsea will say it should have been a penalty for a *push* and United will say that the correct decision was made. The referee and VAR decided that the two handed push was to be called.
As to the final point exaggeration does not negate any foul yet it does place doubt on questionable ones. Referees have to consider whether the action was in fact a foul or if it was an attempt to win a foul on what would be trifling or doubtful contact.

The following questions were asked as a follow up to the above question...

See Question: 33892