Question Number: 35594

Mechanics 6/23/2024

Crebs Crem of Zagreb, Croatia asks...

Hello,

When team A is attacking, player A10 gets fouled by a player of team B. The ball rolls to player A7 and A7 tries to pass the defender just in front of him but the defender steals the ball, starts a counter attack and team B scores a goal. If there is VAR, should VAR intervene for a potential foul before the goal?

Answer provided by Referee Joe McHugh

Hi Crebs
There is every chance that the foul did not begin the attacking phase by Team B yet rather the loss of possession by A7 in which case VAR will not intervene.
It’s not cast in stone as the loss of possession by A7 could have been significantly impacted by the foul in A10.

There could also be an advantage situation where advantage was played on the first offence and fully realised on which case VAR is not required.

Answer provided by Referee Richard Dawson

HI Crebs
you enjoying the Euro championships?
VAR is there to assist the referee not perform a fails safe for every decision. We can assume the referee SEES the incident between A10 and the defender and makes no decision to stop play which in of itself IS the decision. If there was a foul it COULD be the referee was playing advantage A7 recovers the ball in a good position but then loses possession through bad play? Then a Team b defender strips him of the ball and starts the attack upon which they score!
It could be the referee saw the interaction between A10 and Defender B as no foul and just let play continue but perhaps he was blocked or screened. As my colleague alluded too the link between the loss of possession by the suspected foul to the 2nd take away to scoring the goal might be weak. If VAR saw a horrific foul that the CR missed it should made well known before the goal scored!
Cheers